delete this please again!

(Sorry about the mess in the original post!)

Can't seem to post the hand in a good format...so here it is in text.

Blinds are 30/60. I'm holding AhJh. Table folds round to me. Cut off and Button fold. SB (Ks5s) and BB call my 180. SB and BB check. I bet 420. SB raises all-in. BB folds. I call in. i.e. me (AhJh) vs. SB (Ks5s) post flop...


[FONT='Verdana','sans-serif']Everyone folds round to me and I'm holding AhJh. Button folds. I'm playing tight and don't pre-flop raise much...so table image is tight, passive. Small blind calls (Small blind plays 25% hands, aggessive). Big blind calls (BB plays over 40% of hands, aggressive). Flop comes in As Ah 8s. A great flop for me...trips and happy days. Not much beating me at this stage. SB checks. BB checks. I bet 420 thinking that should be enough to win the pot. But then SB goes all in after flop!!! BB folds. I put SB on an Ace but I likely had him beat with the AJ. So I call his all-in. Cards turn over and SB shows Ks5s...34% chance of winning and he calls!!! Great I think until...of course.....his last spade drops in!!!![/font]

We were in the early stages of the tourney (30/60 blinds)[/font]

Question...was he right to make that all-in raise? Should I have gone all in after I flopped trip aces? Personally I would have folded the K5s and not even have bet from the SB. Am I doing the right thing here!!! [/font]