It looks donkish in retrospect. Main reasons for pushing were

1) It was a $4 buyin MTT, so MP1 could have a variety of hands. UTG has at best a low PP or some random junk, so I'm not afraid of him calling. I'm not even sure I saw him limping when making the move.
2) Button just called and did not reraise

Anyways how would you play it? Just call for set value?

PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t50 (9 handed) Hand History Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com (Format: FlopTurnRiver)

Button (t3265)
Hero (t2310)
BB (t8145)
UTG (t1735)
UTG+1 (t3310)
MP1 (t995)
MP2 (t2160)
MP3 (t6390)
CO (t1260)

Preflop: Hero is SB with J, J.
UTG calls t50, 1 fold, MP1 raises to t250, 3 folds, Button calls t250, Hero raises to t2310, 1 fold, UTG folds, MP1 calls t745 (All-In), Button calls t2060.

Flop: (t5715) Q, T, 6 (3 players, 1 all-in)

Turn: (t5715) J (3 players, 1 all-in)

River: (t5715) T (3 players, 1 all-in)

Final Pot: t5715

Results in white below:
Hero has JavaScript Jd (full house, jacks full of tens).
MP1 has Kd Kc (two pair, kings and tens).
Button has Ad As (two pair, aces and tens).
Outcome: Hero wins t5715.

Originally Posted by FaDi

I dont know, i'm kinda split in this on one hand Mp1 is basically begging you to reraise him all in when he raises that much preflop with his stack, i really dont like going all in with JJ, the only thing that matters is if you would not have reraised and just called and then at the flop MP1 and the other guy went all in, would you have called?

Without a set, very unlikely. I'd give one of them credit for beating me, whether with an overpair or set. Except if the flop is exactly 89T then maybe yes

I just dont like going all in with JJ, unless your a shortstack, and with the blinds at 50, and your chip at 2300, thats 46bb. But in the end it all worked out for you, so it doesnt matter what i say. lol.