~200 people left in the tournament, I'm "CO" and was moved to this table maybe 5 hands ago. Don't have a read on anyone.

PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t1200 (9 handed) Hand History Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com (Format: FlopTurnRiver)

saw flop|saw showdown

UTG+1 (t87046)
MP1 (t41511)
MP2 (t30082)
MP3 (t32497)
CO (t86327)
Button (t34828)
SB (t124551)
BB (t10737)
UTG (t61650)

Preflop:
(CO dealt 7h 7s)
3 folds, MP2 calls t1200, MP3 calls t1200, CO raises to t6000, 3 folds, MP2 calls t4800, MP3 folds.

Flop: (t13800) 8, 9, T (2 players)
MP2 bets t24007 (All-In), CO calls t24007.

* (I took a long time to think about this and normally would have folded, but something about his all-in was fishy especially given his initial limp-in...)

Turn: (t61814) A (2 players, 1 all-in)

River: (t61814) 5 (2 players, 1 all-in)

Final Pot: t61814

Originally Posted by Rankles

Fold at the flop. You gave it a good go preflop and eliminated all but one player. He hit his flop perfectly but even without knowing that, there are three over cards out there which effectively give you bottom pair. If he had paired up with just one of those cards he has you beaten, and his all in suggests he's paired at least two or hit the straight.

There's also the chance of him having a flush draw.

Here was my reasoning:


I was most worried about the straight, but honestly thought the chances of a short stack calling a 5bb preflop raise with the cards needed to make a straight (high or low) were slim. High would be most likely... Same for two-pair


If he had a higher pocket pair than any of the flop, I would have expected him to go all-in preflop (or at least heavily raise). Being the short-stack, I doubt he would slow play here.

I could also see him having a flush draw, but at that point it would be a coinflip. Pot size was 37,000 for me to call with 24000, so my pot odds were better than 50/50 (and I could survive if I lost).



I guess if I thought about it some more, I should have put him on an A-10, as that is the only hand I could see calling a modest preflop raise, then going all-in on with a 10-high on the board. But at the time I called, I hadn't even thought of that possibility. I was just thinking he was bluffing with two overcards to try and recoop his preflop bet



Having said all of that, are there any major flaws in my logic? Should I honestly have put him on QJ?

Originally Posted by feint06

So you're saying unless you have the nuts, you fold to every bluff? If not, where do you draw the line?

Generally, I call when I think I have the best hand or I think I have the odds to make the best hand.

In your case, I fold on the flop, you beat almost nothing.