Quote:
Originally Posted by DaFish
Yeah but those implied odds only exist against weak players.
If you make a pot-sized bet on the flop, you essentially give him better implied odds, since you commit yourself to the pot. On the river the pot would be $50 or so, how can we get away from that hand then...
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yea, but i didnt mean it in a sense that Mr.Mcj is gonna get stacked on the turn or the river cuz hes not gonna be able to fold 2pair..
What I was refering to when i mentioned implied odds, was the ratio of $$ he puts in ahead in this hand to the money he puts in behind (that is if he gets outdrawn on turn) in respect the potsizes on the flop and the turn. And by betting less on the flop, your giving your opponent a better ratio of "money put in behind on the flop: money put in ahead on the turn". So basically your giving him a better ratio to extract money out of you if he hits, in comparison to the amount of money he spends seeing the next card.
What i mean here by implied odds is that by betting so small on the flop, followed by betting harder on the turn (e.g for this case, it was betting 53% of the pot on the flop, followed by betting 77% of the pot on the turn), your gonna be putting in less money while ahead and more money while behind (in a ratio perspective). Therefore, it would work towards your benefit if you tried to reverse those numbers so that ur betting more while ahead and less while behind (e.g betting maybe 90% potsize on flop, and 75% potsize on turn).
Please, allow me to explain further. If I apply this to the hand that was played out above.
Say, in this example that your opponent had 58s (a OESD), and therefore hit his draw on the turn. Because of the way the hand played out, by betting first on the turn, your only going to get called or raised if your opponent hit his draw a majority of the time. If your opponent didnt hit, hes most likely dropping his hand to ur turn bet. Obviously, there are a ton of donkeys out there and this doesnt apply all the time, hence McJ getting called on the flop by someone holding only MP.
So assuming your opponent was calling the flop bet on a draw, either a OESD or a club flush draw (which is most likely what villian would hold here due to the way the flop was played out). And will only call/raise the turn if he had 58 and completed his straight.
Mr.McJ bets 4$ while ahead (53% potsize on flop)
And 12$ while behind (77%potsize on turn)
Therefore he puts in 12$ while behind, and 4$ while ahead in the hand. Thats a ratio of 3:1.. or 3$ put in behind for every 1$ put in ahead.
Now, on the other hand:
Say Mr.McJ bets 7$ on that flop (93% of the potsize on the flop)
and then bets 16.5$ while behind on the turn (77% potsize on turn <- the same % bet that McJ put on the previous)
Therefore he puts in 16.5$ while behind, and 7$ while ahead in the hand. Thats a ratio of 2.35:1... or 2.35$ put in behind for every 1$ put in ahead.
The latter is a much better ratio of $$ put in ahead: $$ put in behind.
And that is the reason why I advocate betting harder on the flop.
In any case, there is no crime in betting smaller on the flop. There are many ways to play the hand, and I am sure u gain some ev by 1/2 potting those flops, which u would have otherwised lost by betting 4/5 potsize. For example, your oppponent calling your 1/2 pot flop bet with only MP despite the fact that their was an Ace on the board <-- im sure that if u bet 90% of the potsize on that flop your opponent is probably folding his MP.