i watch the wpt and i always hear mike sexton saying for a guy to call pf flop hes getting 3-1 on his money but only is a 2-1 underdog, which means it would be correct to call. i'll set up a situation and then ask my question
= 65% equity vs. = 35% equity (preflop)
now if the pot stands at 6000 and its 3000 to call,so the pot is offering 2-1, since the 10 9 suited is only a 2-1 underdog would it be correct to call or in reality are you getting 3.3 to 1 odds to call?
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Bondage Tube

i think in reality your getting 2 to 1. so your getting justice for a call. however in this situation, i think my implied would be (-) b/c when i make flush i bust, if i hit two pair, and the KQ has strait, i bust, etc...

The bet is 2-1 odds, (3k to win 6k), and you are only a 2-1 dog, so this is a break even play by calling.


Except:

equity (%) win (%) tie (%)
Hand 1: 63.1063 % 62.75% 00.35% { KQs }
Hand 2: 36.8937 % 36.54% 00.35% { T9s }


So it is +EV to call here. But then you have to think of the variance, and do you want to risk that? That not a quantitaive thing, more of a UF thing, but thats where the phrase "passing on small EV to take advantage of bigger EV later" gets some of its meaning.