Anybody know what the odds are in this?

**Pok 7's** · 12-02-2005

I found a chart from Kreiger that shows all the out's and odds and it also has some other probablilities, the 2 that got me thinking were. 2 suited cards makes a flush 6.5% of the time and will flop a flush 0.8%. But what are the chances of having 2 suited cards of different suits being dealt? In other words if I have 2 clubs, what are the probablilites in a full game that there's say 2, hearts dealt or diamonds, etc at the table. Also would that increase the chances of a flush being made or are the percentages exactly the same? I'm hoping this makes sense and isn't a dumb question.

**Trapper** · 12-02-2005

Cool i would like to check it out. Is this a chart posted on line? or something you bought?

**Pok 7's** · 12-02-2005

Originally Posted by Trapper

Cool i would like to check it out. Is this a chart posted on line? or something you bought?

On line but I'll save you the search

**4Aces** · 12-02-2005

Here is the link:
http://www.loukrieger.com/articles05/pot_odds.asp

**Pok 7's** · 12-02-2005

That article brings up something I was wondering also about pot odds. He talks about if you're 4 flushed in hold em you're 4:1 to make your hand in a 20-40 there would need to be 160 in the pot to make the call. Now let's assume there's 120 in the pot before it's your turn to act, if someone bets 40 before its your turn does that mean they just gave you the correct odds to call? Or does that mean there needs to be 160 in the pot before there's a bet. My thinking is the 160 need to be there before any bets is this right?

**bonchkid** · 12-02-2005

It always suprises me the sheer number of people who either didn't take math classes in middle school, or can't remember.

**Beavis68** · 12-02-2005

Originally Posted by Pok 7's

That article brings up something I was wondering also about pot odds. He talks about if you're 4 flushed in hold em you're 4:1 to make your hand in a 20-40 there would need to be 160 in the pot to make the call. Now let's assume there's 120 in the pot before it's your turn to act, if someone bets 40 before its your turn does that mean they just gave you the correct odds to call? Or does that mean there needs to be 160 in the pot before there's a bet. My thinking is the 160 need to be there before any bets is this right?

"the pot" includes all money on the table, even your own previous bet.

Let's say there is 100 inthe pot, you decide to bluff and bet 20, one player calls all-in for his last 20, one raises to $40 back to you. "The pot" is now 180 giving you 9:1 odds to call. 100+20 +20+40.

**Pok 7's** · 12-02-2005

Originally Posted by bonchkid

It always suprises me the sheer number of people who either didn't take math classes in middle school, or can't remember.

Sorry, yes sometimes is is tough to remember middle school when it wasn't only a year or 2 ago

So then why is it the correct thing to do is bet to try and force out draws while at the same time the same bets can be giving those draws the correct odds?

**Method** · 12-02-2005

Pot odds is the ratio of how much you have to pay to see the next card vs. how much is in the pot before you do so (or risk vs. payoff). Any bet/raise made before you is considered in the pot.

**Method** · 12-02-2005

I like your comeback 7's.

Yes, particularly in limit, you can have a bettor and a caller both playing correctly. The reason you want to bet even though you might be giving proper odds is because it is better than checking, where you are allowing infinite pot odds. Just because you are getting correct pot odds to call doesn't mean you will win the hand. A favorite will win more often than it loses, and that is why the bettor is betting. Similarly, a caller is calling bets when he is getting good pot odds because, in the long run, he will win more than he loses, even though he is losing more often than he wins.

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