Hello,

Could you guys give me opinions on a hand that I played the other night that has been going round in my head a bit as to whether I played it well or could have played it better. Sorry it's not been converted properly - none of the converters work on any of the sites I play at.

I had played about 40 hands at the table and my reads were as follows:

Villain 1 - seemed a bit of a donk, passive and rarely lead the betting. He had earlier called a large all in with middle pair (and lost) and after seeing this I twice made overbets with very strong hands against him in the hope of getting the same response. However both times he had folded and he probably has me as a bit of a bully.

Villain 2 - The only thing I had really noticed about him was that he had overplayed a high pocket pair on 2 occasions. I hadn't really played in any major hands against him.

My image was probably a bit laggy on the whole due to a decent run of cards that I had been playing aggressively.



Game Type Hold'Em
Play Mode Real
Table Name Colonial (max 6)
Structure NL $0.10/$0.25


joey pockets 1 $19.85
jayQzz 2 $7.55
Villain1 3 $8.95
Villain2 4 $19.30
alizee 5 $20.15
Hero 6 $41.90


joey pockets Ante/Small blind $ 0.10
jayQzz Big blind/Bring in $ 0.25
Hero Card dealt to a spot

Villain1 Raise $ 0.50
Villain2 Raise $ 1.30
alizee Fold
Hero Call $ 1.30
joey pockets Fold $ 0.10
jayQzz Fold $ 0.25
Villain1 Call $ 0.80

Ok, pre-flop I put Villain2 on a high pair due to the re-raise as he had done this previously. I’m now playing JJ for set value and with Villain2’s stack and tendency to hold on to high pocket pairs I think I’m getting implied odds. I’ve got no idea what Villain1 is holding at this point.

Betting round completed ($4.25)



Card dealt to table

Villain1 Bet $ 1.00
Villain2 Raise $ 2.50
Hero All-in $ 40.60

This is where I either got the hand totally right or really screwed it up. It was rare for villain1 to lead the betting so they must have had something here. Maybe a nut flush draw with top pair? The raise by Villain2 looked like he def had a high pp as I thought pre-flop. I did contemplate a more subtle raise here that would have priced out a flush draw, but kept Villain2 in the hand (after all he probably thought he was ahead), but I couldn’t decide how much and before I knew it the time was going. I though, if I push at least one of them will call based on previous hands and my reads – so I pushed.

It wasn’t until later that I though about how much an error it would have been if they both folded. Thankfully they both called, but I’ll reveal the results later.

Any thoughts?

Anyone who's calling any rereraise is probably calling/pushing all in. I would have played the same.

Originally Posted by WotaWaster

Anyone who's calling any rereraise is probably calling/pushing all in. I would have played the same.

yea, i agree..




i probably would have just re-raised it here on the flop to like 10-12$.. and then put it all in on the turn.. but the all in on the flop is not that bad either.

I think you just explained why it'd be an error if they both folded.